Re: Concord of Gender and Number

From: clayton stirling bartholomew (
Date: Fri Aug 21 1998 - 12:58:24 EDT

James P. Ware wrote:
> I am a little confused by Clayton's and Carl's most recent postings on
> concord. Both seem to take Matthew 12:6 as a case of apparent lack of
> concord. But meizon in this verse is not an attributive or predicate
> adjective, but is rather a substantival adjective i.e. it functions as a
> noun. It doesn't strictly speaking have either grammatical concord or
> discord with anything in the clause. The relevant issue here, it seems to
> me, is what factors enter into play when a Greek speaker assigns gender to
> substantival adjectives. Here Clayton's hunch seems to fit the context.


You are correct of course. Concord is the wrong word to use when discussing
MEIZON in Mat. 12:6. However there is an expectation, is their not, that a
person (Jesus Christ) will not be the referent of a neuter adjective
functioning as a substantive. This expectation does not fall under the rules
of concord. I don't know what name is given to this expectation. But this
expectation is violated in Mat 12:6 for reasons that have already been
discussed. I think it was this expectation that led to the scribal
"correction" to MEIZWN, the scribes not understanding how MEIZON was being

Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062

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