From: Martin Gallagher (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Aug 28 1998 - 14:22:24 EDT
Is there any grammatical reason why KOINHS in Jude 1:3 may not be
translated as 'profane', rather than 'shared'?
The only other place that I have found this word used in the same
manner is in Titus 1:4 (KOINHS PISTIN). the only difference being that
in Jude, HMWN is used between the adjective and its subject, and there
is a definite article here (THS KOINHS HMWN SWTHRIAS).
I have seen no evidence of dispute about this word in any translations
or commentary, with the exception of the exclusion of HMWN some texts.
Theological argument allows this verse and the one in Titus to use
'profane', but is it valid grammatically?
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