From: Jonathan Robie (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Sep 09 1998 - 10:27:44 EDT
At 09:12 AM 9/9/98 +0100, Edgar Krentz wrote:
>Recently Chrys Caragouinis send me a copy of his articler "The Error of
>Earsmus and un-Greek Pronunciations of Greek,"Filologia Neotestamentaria 8
"The Error of Earsmus", eh? What a wonderful title!
>I am curious. Has anyone else read his paper and written an evaluation of
>it? He concludes that the modern Greek pronunciation is the same as that of
>ancient Greek, going back to the fifth century BC. He deals with Allen's
>VOX GRAECA in passing on p. 183.
The *same*? As in, no change at all in Greek pronunciation since the fifth
century BC? No, I haven't read his paper, and I'm very interested in what
you have to say about it when you've worked through it.
But given what we know about Grimm's Laws and phonological change in
languages like English and German, why should the pronunciation of Greek
stand still from the fifth century BC onward?
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