Date: Tue Oct 27 1998 - 21:27:53 EST

Oh, in case you were wondering, the reason I referred to Philo is because he
is most likely the source from which John became familiar with the term. But,
again, I do not think John intended a one-to-one correspondence between his
use of LOGOS and that of Philo, but merely used a word made popular, in terms
of biblical exegesis, by Philo, and attributed it to the spiritual personage
who became the man, Jesus Christ.

Greg Stafford

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