Date: Sun Nov 08 1998 - 10:55:05 EST

In a message dated 11/8/98 7:48:07 AM Pacific Standard Time,

<< Thank you, Carl, for your helpful reply, but I still have a question. It's
 obvious that 1.18 is partitive (Jesus was one of the dead, and from among
 them became the firstborn of the resurrection). But then why would't the
 author also use an EK in 1.15, or a simple genitive/ablative in 1.18? The
 passage seems to be constructed on such close parallelism, that this
 variation still seems striking and probably intentional. Or not?
                 Juan Stam, Costa Rica >>

I can see you are directing your question to Carl, but I hope neither one of
you mind if I make a brief comment on this issue. I think it is safe to take
EK as creating some sort of separation from the group (the "dead") from which
Christ came, to which he once belonged. EK is not used in Col. 1:15 for there
is no separation from the group to which belongs; he did not come "from" the
KTISIS; he is still a part of it, though the "firstborn."

Greg Stafford

B-Greek home page:
You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: []
To unsubscribe, forward this message to
To subscribe, send a message to

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:40:07 EDT