From: Carl W. Conrad (
Date: Sun Nov 08 1998 - 10:59:02 EST

<x-flowed>At 9:48 AM -0600 11/8/98, Juan Stam wrote:
>Thank you, Carl, for your helpful reply, but I still have a question. It's
>obvious that 1.18 is partitive (Jesus was one of the dead, and from among
>them became the firstborn of the resurrection). But then why would't the
>author also use an EK in 1.15, or a simple genitive/ablative in 1.18? The
>passage seems to be constructed on such close parallelism, that this
>variation still seems striking and probably intentional. Or not?

On this question, Juan, I can only say that I was once a good deal more
confident about the reason underlying that sort of variation. You will
recall the not infrequent discussions we've had on the list about FILEW and
AGAPAW in John 21; there was a time when I was convinced that that
variation was very significant, but I am inclined to doubt it now. I
suspect that PRWTOTOKOS is used with partitive in both passages in Col 1,
but I am not so sure that it can be proven to be so to everyone's
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649 OR

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