Date: Mon Nov 09 1998 - 10:18:03 EST

In a message dated 11/9/98 4:46:30 AM Pacific Standard Time,

<< Kyle, however, wrote: "Wallace's points seem very sound and convincing. In
 the footnotes, he lists some of the Biblical passages where PRWTOTOKOS refers
to preeminence--1 Chron 5:1; Ps 89:27; Rom 8:29; Rev 1:5." What does the
phrase "where PRWTOTOKOS refers to preeminence" mean? None of the passages
referred to indicate a *lexical* meaning for PRWTOTOKOS different from "the
one who is born first". Was Wallace using pragmatic implicature rather than
semantics? >>

I believe so. In fact, three of the pasages to which Wallace refers have a
temporal meaning, with preeminence following as a result of the temporal
priority. The other, Psalm 89:27, is figurative, as shown by the use of

Also, either Christ is the actual firstborn of God, or someone else is. If the
use of PRWTOTOKOS in Col. 1:15 is figurative, then who is it that Christ
supplants as firstborn?

Greg Stafford

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