Re: Direct / Indirect Speech

From: Jim West (jwest@Highland.Net)
Date: Tue Nov 24 1998 - 10:12:02 EST

At 07:26 PM 11/24/98 +0200, you wrote:
>Don't misunderstand me I wasn't saying that many will be decieved by Christ
>but by people who testify that Jesus is the Christ.
>Please bear with me. I am still be ignorant of many of the greek grammar.
>I would like to know if there is a way in greek to indicate "direct
>speech"(as in english) in greek.
>The punctuation in english is quite important.
>Take for instance these two sentences.
>1. Many will come and say I am the Christ and decieve many.
>2. Many will come and say: "I am the Christ"; and decieve many.

I dont see any difference between these 2 sentences.

>The first sentence could imply that many will testify that Jesus is the
>Christ(and rightly so) but
>still decieve people by other teachings that they did not recieve from him.
>(The author of the book I was reading made this statment, and I do believe
>there is people who
>call Jesus the Christ and are teaching false doctrine. But I would like to
>determine if that is what
>was implied by this part of the gospel.)
>But the second sentence without doubt says that these people will say that
>they are the christ.
>My greek text doesn't have any punctuation so I don't know what to make of
>it. If the punctuation
>matters at all??

Punctuation is important----- for translation- but you are right- there in
none in the greek text.

Still, the case endings of the Greek text make clear who is speaking and to
whom. Others have pointed out the importance of the cases in this verse.
And they are right.

Case is everything in Greek!

>Juan Heyns




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