Re: John 6:10

From: Jim West (jwest@Highland.Net)
Date: Thu Feb 04 1999 - 16:22:36 EST

At 02:44 PM 2/4/99 -0500, you wrote:

>In the first part of the verse, the word is anthrwpous, which is the
>plural almost always means "people" not "men" as in specifically male
>human beings. In the second part of the verse, the word is hoi andres
>and does mean "men" as in specifically male human beings. I think a
>better translation might be:
> Jesus said, "Make the people sit down. But there was grass
> in that place, so they sat down, the men being about five
> thousand in number.

I think ya'll are reading too much into the synonyms here.
anthrwpous/andres is merely a device to avoid repitition. I might add that
just because moderns are infected with a politically correct notion of
reality does not mean that 1st century authors writing in Greek were as well
(in fact they most certainly were not).

When some of us write- we do our best to avoid using the same words to say
the same things... There is ample evidence to show that ancient authors
were likewise interested in spreading their vocabulary around.

So, that John uses "anthropous" and then a line later uses "andres", is not
really remarkable.




Jim West, ThD
Quartz Hill School of Theology

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