Re: The last verse of Ephesians Chapter1

From: Carlton Winbery (
Date: Mon Feb 08 1999 - 10:07:08 EST

Dax Hughs wrote;
> I need help making sense of the last verse in Ephesians one. Does
>the >pleroma refer to the church or to Christ? How do you translate the
>verse? Do >you translate the verb in the middle or passive tense?
>Thanks for your help

PLHROMA is modified by the participle in the genitive case, TOU
PLHROUMENOU. This seems to me to refer to the "fullness of the one who is
himself filling" (middle voice). What comes between the article TOU and
the participle serves as the object of the participle, "fills all things in
all." This is probably intensive, "who completely fills." Hence I would
translate (the church) "which is his body, the fullness of him who himself
completely fills all."

Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
Louisiana College
Pineville, LA 71359

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