Re: Pluperfect in John 7:30

From: Carl W. Conrad (
Date: Mon Feb 08 1999 - 21:15:44 EST

At 7:16 PM +0400 2/8/99, Carlton Winbery wrote:
>Carl Conrad wrote;
>>hHKW is termed a "perfective present" because it is conjugated as a present
>>tense but is translated with the sense of a perfect: "I have come"; it has
>>an imperfect, and I have seen a future hHXW, but there are no forms in any
>>other tense system, to my knowledge.
>Carl, This word occurs in the NT in the present, future and once as an
>aorist. In Mark 6:3 we have the word, hHKASIN, which could be the perfect
>act 3rd pl with the two K coalesced or, as I prefer, the pres. act ind. 3rd
>pl that "borrowed," at the writers hand, the perfect ending from the 4th
>The aorist form can be found with a search. But I have one aor. form hHXA
>listed in my morphology.

You're quite right, Carlton; the aorist IS found in Hellenistic Greek,
although it isn't in Classical Greek which is what I was remembering. My
guess is that the form in Mark 6:3 is using the stem with a perfect ending
that seems appropriate precisely because of the kappa in the stem and the
perfective meaning.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649 OR

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