From: James S. Murray (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Feb 24 1999 - 21:59:21 EST
I'm a beginner working through 1 John (of coarse), and have a question
regard the use of the dative with AFIHMI in 1 John 1:9 "..hINA AFHi
hHMIV TAS hAMARTIAS.. " and 2:12 "hOTI AFEWNTAI hUMIV hAI hAMARTAI.. ".
My question is this. Is hHMIV/hUMIV here to be understood as
a) the direct object taking the dative
b) the possesive use of the dative, e.g. "our sins"
c) the indirect object for whom the action of the verb is done?
I have not been able to find a reference to AFIHMI taking the dative,
like PISTEUW, DIAKONEW, etc., so I question a).
I'm sorry is this is pretty basic, but I'm teaching myself and I've hit
a roadblock. For translation, I think the basic idea of the dative, ie.
personal interest, comes through either way. I'm just trying better
understand the use of the dative case.
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