From: Edgar Krentz (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Mar 26 1999 - 14:44:09 EST
>I have translated my way through John, 1 John, 1 Thess., and large chunks
>of several other documents, all (so far) without overwhelming difficulty.
> However, Jude leaves me a little breathless. For example, the first word
>in verse 6 (TOUS AGGELOUS) is apparently the object of the last word in
>that verse (TETHRHKEN), with some 20 words in between. Attempting to
>keep Jude's word order somewhat intact, verse 6 seems to loosely
>translate something like: "And the angels--the ones who have not kept
>their own domain, but have left their own habitation--in eternal bonds
>under darkness for the judgment of the great day, He has kept." I
>understand, of course, that word order in Greek is directly related to
>what the writer wants to emphasize, but most of the writers I have
>encountered so far seem to keep their subjects and predicates in a little
>closer proximity to each other. No doubt, my problem is that I'm just a
>self-taught little Greek, but I'm curious to know from the experts if
>Jude is considered to be a particularly difficult letter to translate,
>and if so, why. Is Jude considered to have been really fluent in Greek,
>or somewhat awkward? Many thanks.
>Theodore "Ted" MannI think the answer to your questions are
1. AGGELOUS is accusative after the ver TETHRHKEN at the end of v. 6.
2. The Greek of Jude is rather good, in terms of more literary criteria.
His senteces have more elegant word order, for example--reserving that verb
TETHRHKEN to the end of clause. And his vocabulary make be a bit unusual if
you come from John and the synotpic Gospels.
Professor of New Testament Emeritus
Lutheran School of Theology at Chicago
1100 E. 55th Street
Chicago, IL 60615 USA
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