From: Carlton Winbery (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Apr 01 1999 - 23:56:35 EST
Eric Weiss wrote;
>"...EN PISTEI ZW THi TOU hUIOU TOU QEOU..."
>Is it possible or likely that Paul phrased it this way (as opposed to EN
>PISTEI ZW TOU hUIOU TOU QEOU, e.g.) because he meant the subjective
>"...I live by faith(fulness), that is, the Son of God's faith(fulness)..."
>Dunn, I believe, argues based on hHMEIS EIS CRISTON IHSOUN EPISTEUSAMEN
>(2:16) that PISTEWS CRISTOU IHSOU in 2:16 and PISTEI...TOU hUIOU TOU QEOU
>(2:20) are objective genitives equivalent to faith in (EIS) Christ. I'm not
>sure anymore, and am tending, like David Alan Black and Norman Wright, to
>see the PISTIS IHSOU CRISTOU phrases here and in Romans as subjective
>genitives, i.e., Christ's faith(fulness).
>I guess I'm asking why the "THi" in 2:20, and if grammatically this
>supports the subjective genitive meaning (or maybe says nothing either
I would say that the only difference the "THi" makes is to make sure the
reader knows that TOU hUIOU TOU QEOU modifies PISTEI, i.e. the article is
used to show the grammatical relationship of the later phrase. It could
have been written "...EN PISTEI TOU hUIOU TOU QEOU ZW..." and would mean
the same thing.
The question as to whether TOU hUIOU is subjective or objective genitive
has been debated at least twice on this list. I would tend to agree with
those who see Paul's use in such passages as objective genitive, but the
argumentation is mostly a question of Pauline theology.
Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
Pineville, LA 71359
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