Re: Genitive Absolute

From: Jim West (jwest@highland.net)
Date: Fri Apr 16 1999 - 14:24:55 EDT


At 10:21 AM 4/16/99 -0700, you wrote:
>I am preparing to teach 1 Peter 4-5 in Sunday School. I could you use help
>in understanding the following:
>
>1. What is the genative absolute and how does it work?

First, and not to be nit picky, its genitive... not genative.

The genitive absolute is a noun and a participle- both in the genitive case,
which are not connected grammatically to the rest of the phrase (sort of
like an independent or subordinate clause in a sentence). If you look at
Mt 9:33, 25:5, and Mark 9:28 you can see an example of this form. The
function is to make definite what might be obscure-- it is in essence a
strengthening of the concept contained in the phrase- and emphasizing, if
you will.

>2. What is the significance of the genative absolute in 1 Peter 4:1?
>
>The portion of the text I am dealing with is "CRISTOU OUN PAQONTOS SARKI".

I dont think this is a very unusual expression. I take it to mean "so
Christ suffered in the flesh...." I.e., Christ suffered physically, really,
(in opposition to the gnostics who believed that he only appeared to suffer-
since he was spirit and not real flesh-- or in their words- when he walked
along the seashore he left no footprints in the sand).

Best,

Jim

+++++++++++++++++++++++++

Jim West, ThD
Petros Baptist Church- Pastor
Quartz Hill School of Theology- Adjunct Prof. of Bible

fax- 978-231-5986
email- jwest@highland.net
web page- http://web.infoave.net/~jwest

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