re: Mt 4:4

From: Jim West (jwest@Highland.Net)
Date: Mon Apr 19 1999 - 17:34:29 EDT

At 04:00 PM 4/19/99 -0500, you wrote:
>I've got another question on the words "PANTI RAEMATI" found in Matthew
>Specifically what does this phrase refer to? How does the typical useage
>of the term in the 1st Century affect it's meaning? What's the clear
>distinction in meaning from other terms such as LOGOS in a setting like
>this? Does it apply to 'A word from the Lord for an individual
>man...implying an ongoing relationship where each man receives personal
>direction from the Lord' or does it imply the written scriptures....or
>both...or some other meaning?

It referred originally (in the OT) to the Torah. Only. As time progressed
it came to refer to the Hebrew Scriptures- (torah and nevi'im). By the end
of the first century CE it referred to the whole of the OT- (torah, nevi'im,
and ketuvim). When Mt. was written (sometime around the mid 80's CE) it
still referred only to torah and nevi'im. It most certainly did not refer
to any NT document- because there was no NT. Likewise, on the lips of Jesus
it did not refer to his own words.



Jim West, ThD
Petros Baptist Church- Pastor
Quartz Hill School of Theology- Adjunct Prof. of Bible

fax- 978-231-5986
web page-

B-Greek home page:
You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: []
To unsubscribe, forward this message to
To subscribe, send a message to

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:40:24 EDT