From: David A Bielby I (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Apr 22 1999 - 00:59:47 EDT
I didn't hear back so I'm assuming this one slipped through unnoticed and
am resending it.
Don't see what you mean...see following comments.
On Mon, 19 Apr 1999 17:32:03 -0400 Jim West <jwest@Highland.Net> writes:
>At 04:00 PM 4/19/99 -0500, you wrote:
>>I've got another question on the words "PANTI RAEMATI" found in
>>Specifically what does this phrase refer to? How does the typical
>>of the term in the 1st Century affect it's meaning? What's the
Here I had in mind something I recall from some studies that the term was
used for a grammatical category....but I didn't see any reference to that
in my lexicons. It was just a curiosity on my part....perhaps I have
mixed it up with another word?
>>distinction in meaning from other terms such as LOGOS in a setting
>>this? Does it apply to 'A word from the Lord for an individual
>>man...implying an ongoing relationship where each man receives
>>direction from the Lord' or does it imply the written
>>both...or some other meaning?
>It referred originally (in the OT) to the Torah. Only. As time
In the first appearances of this word that I looked at in the OT, it is
in reference to or in relationship with a prophetic revelation. Gen.15:1
In Deut. 1:6 it is referring to a specific command for the nation at a
specific time and doesn't seem to me to refer to the whole Torah at all
since the term ANABAENAI probably refers to the effect of the ten spies
on the people......
Then it appears next in Deut. 8:3 with a potential reference to 1:6. So,
I don't understand what you are referring to. I can't find any instance
up to that point that refers to the Torah....since the Torah was not yet
written when that event occured, perhaps it does include prophetic
revelation in context?
Thank you so much. I really appreciate the input. It stirs me to study
>it came to refer to the Hebrew Scriptures- (torah and nevi'im). By
>of the first century CE it referred to the whole of the OT- (torah,
>and ketuvim). When Mt. was written (sometime around the mid 80's CE)
>still referred only to torah and nevi'im. It most certainly did not
>to any NT document- because there was no NT. Likewise, on the lips of
>it did not refer to his own words.
>Jim West, ThD
>Petros Baptist Church- Pastor
>Quartz Hill School of Theology- Adjunct Prof. of Bible
>web page- http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
David Bielby I
Pastor Vineyard Christian Fellowship Bloomington, Illinois USA
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