From: Bryan Rocine (brocine@earthlink.net)
Date: Wed Apr 07 1999 - 16:18:47 EDT
Dear B-Greeks,
Do the present indicative verbs used in Rom 7:14-24 refer to the past,
perhaps a repetitive or habitual past? Is the use of present indicative
here idiomatic or "rhetorical" or "idiosyncratic" because they refer to
something entirely past? Or does Paul mean it just as he says it
(*presently*): EGO DE SARKINOS EIMI...TALAIPWROS EGO ANQROWPOS
Perhaps it is obvious why I would ask. If these present indicative
verbs do not refer to the past, I would have a hard time reconciling
them with Paul's imperatives in 6:11-14 or the discourse in 8:1ff.
Thanks,
Bryan
B.M. Rocine
pastor
Living Word Church
Syracuse, NY 13206
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