From: Moon-Ryul Jung (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Apr 23 1999 - 22:56:30 EDT
On 04/23/99, ""Carl W. Conrad" <email@example.com>" wrote:
> At 12:31 AM -0500 4/23/99, Moon-Ryul Jung wrote:
> >Dear B-Greekers,
> >In 1 Cor 15:51, we read
> >PANTES OU KOIMHQHSOMEQA, PANTES DE ALLAGHSOMEQA.
> >It is translated as "we shall not all sleep, but we shall all be
> >changed". So, OU is taken to modify PANTES. The translation
> >implies that some will sleep. Is it the right way to interpret
> >the greek?
> >Is there no difference between the above sentence and
> >OU PANTES KOIMHQHSOMEQA, PANTES DE ALLAGHSOMEQA?
> I'm not absolutely confident of this, but I rather think that the
> resolution of the problem lies in the fact that PANTES is not a
> substantival subject but predicative and therefore adverbial in both
> clauses; it is, moreover, the emphatic element in both clauses, and I think
> that's the primary reason why it takes first position in PANTES OU
"All of us inclusively (i.e. 100% of us) are NOT going to
> sleep, but all of us inclusively (i.e. 100% of us) ARE going to undergo
Does this rendering imply that no one of us is going to sleep?
Dept of Computer Science
> Carl W. Conrad
> Department of Classics/Washington University
> One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
> Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
> WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/
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