From: David Hoff (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Apr 22 1999 - 11:35:23 EDT
Could anyone help resolve a statement in the preface of the "Pocket
Interlinear New Testament" Jay P Green, Editor stating ....
(QUOTE)"1 Corinthians 16:1, the KJV has "churches," without any MSS support
at all: the Greek has church".
I checked the Sinaiticus Codex and it has EKKLESIA not EKKLESIAIS as in
UBS3 and NA26....I also noticed that the article is plural TAIS in the
Did the scholars decide that EKKLESIA was a scribal error and decided on
EKKLESIAIS, especially since the article is plural?
This has some significance in the fact that in the NT the churches in a
region normally would be described in the plural as "churches" unless it is
clear from context that the universal "church" is being addressed. Galatia,
being a region and not a locality, should prompt a plural "churches".
Thank you for any clarification
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