Re: Does Mark 8:7 use an imperative infinitive' ?

From: Ben Crick (
Date: Sun May 09 1999 - 22:13:24 EDT

On Sun 9 May 99 , wrote:
> Also let me ask one more question. Why "EIPEN must be understood to have
> the sense EKELEUSEN"? I do not question you are correct, I just want
> to understand why you are correct. Why not 'He instructed them' for
> example?

 Well, Jay: as one little Greek to another:

 I sometimes find that Jerome sheds new light on a difficult Greek passage
 in his /Biblia Sacra Vulgata/. At Mark 8:7 Jerome translates

 et habebant pisciculos paucos et ipsos benedixit et iussit adponi

 Ignoring the finite verb /benedixit/ for the participle EULOGHSAS, we see
 that Jerome translates EIPEN as "commanded" or "ordered" (iussit), with
 the passive infinitive.

 Compare Luke 7:7, where the centurion says to Jesus "but say in a word,
 and my servant shall be healed" ALLA EIPE LOGWi, KAI IAQHTW hO PAIS MOU.
 Here we have the verb ERW clearly used in the sense of issuing an order.



 Revd Ben Crick, BA CF
 232 Canterbury Road, Birchington, Kent, CT7 9TD (UK)

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