Re: Mark 3.1

From: George Blaisdell (
Date: Wed May 12 1999 - 14:02:01 EDT


>From: "Moon-Ryul Jung"

> > >Thanks, Carl. Finally, Mark 3.1 makes sense to me.


> > >Based on the data you provided, I would render it as
> > > "There was there a man with his hand withered". (a)

>But George Blaisdell thinks EXHRAMMENHN is clearly
>His decisions would force him to render Mk 3.1 as
>" There was there a man having his withered hand."
>But this sounds akward. As long as we take THN CEIRA as THN hEAUTOU CEIRA,
>I think there is NO WAY to take the participle EXHRAMMENHN as attributive.

Moon ~

The key phrase is EXHRAMMENHN ECWN THN CEIRA, where ECWN ties together
EXHRHMMENHN and THN CEIRA. [Just as EXHRAMMENHN ties together what preceeds
and follows it.]

So that 'being withered the hand' or better, 'the hand being withered' would
seem to slide easily into what might be called idiomatic attribution of
possession, because of ECWN, a participle that clearly 'has' [possession],

The possesive ECWN idiomatically 'distributes' its force to what it ties
together, giving us in English "Having his hand withered", rather than
'having his withered hand.'

The hand clearly has a very distinctive attribute, does it not? It is
withered!! Hence EXHRAMMENHN is attributive of CIERA.

Am I making any sense of this for you??

George Blaisdell
Roslyn, WA

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