From: clayton stirling bartholomew (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu May 20 1999 - 13:05:13 EDT
> So here, it looks like METANOEIN as
> an infinitive is used with hINA owing to a sense on the part of the writer
> (or scribe) that hINA + subjunctive does have the same idiomatic function
> as an infinitive or purpose.
A most informative reply. I am trying in one sense to read the mind of
James Hardy Ropes here. I take it from what you are saying that Ropes
probably considered this combination of hINA with an infinitive an error
on the part of the scribe. Some of Rope's "obvious errors" have been
questioned by later textual critics. And perhaps if I understand you
correctly you are saying there is a way to read this and make sense out
of it by comparing it to the infinitive in later Greek.
-- Clayton Stirling Bartholomew Three Tree Point P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062
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