Re: Phil. 2:6-An Example of Anaphora?

From: Carl W. Conrad (
Date: Wed Jun 02 1999 - 12:49:47 EDT

At 6:36 AM -0700 6/2/99, Edgar Foster wrote:
>Dear B-Greekers,
>In Phil. 2:6, the apostle Paul writes:
>Would it be correct to view TO as an anaphorical article? Does the
>phrase TO EINAI ISA QEWi point back to hOS EN MORFH QEOU hUPARXWN?

I don't think that there's any syntactic link; what we have here is clearly
an articular infinitive: EINAI ISA QEWi is made a substantive by it and
then the substantive functions as the direct object of hHGHSATO with
hARPAGMON as the predicate accusative.

How TO EINAI ISA QEWi relates to EN MORFHi QEOU hUPARCWN depends on how you
read the meaning of the latter phrase. While the standard view is that the
latter phrase refers to pre-existent divine status, I have in the past
argued that it refers rather to the Adamic condition of Christ as DEUTEROS
ANQRWPOS, bearing within the untarnished "image of God."

This text is heavily fraught with theological interpretation. You might
want to consult the older archives (i.e. before June of 1998) for lengthy
threads on this verse and the entire Christ-hymn in Phil 2:4-11. Here and
now we ought to stick to possibilities within the Greek.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
Summer: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243

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