From: Edgar Foster (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Jun 02 1999 - 15:23:06 EDT
--- "Carl W. Conrad" <email@example.com> wrote:
> At 6:36 AM -0700 6/2/99, Edgar Foster wrote:
>In Phil. 2:6, the apostle Paul writes:
>hOS EN MORFH QEOU hUPARXWN OUX hARPAGMON hHGHSATO
TO EINAI ISA QEWi.<
>Would it be correct to view TO as an anaphorical
article? Does the phrase TO EINAI ISA QEWi point back to hOS EN MORFH
>I don't think that there's any syntactic link; what
we have here is clearly an articular infinitive: EINAI ISA QEWi is made
a substantive by it and then the substantive functions as the direct
object of hHGHSATO with hARPAGMON as the predicate accusative.<
I am presently working on a paper dealing with Phil. 2:6ff. There are a
number of controversial elements in this unit, and I want to be sure
I'm standing on solid grammatical ground. Richard Young, in his
intermediate grammar, echoes your understanding of TO in Phil. 2:6. He
cites Phil. 2:6, 13 as examples of the article converting infinitives
into noun phrases. While researching this passage, however, I have
found many voices who assert TO is anaphorical in 2:6. One such "voice"
is Gerald Hawthorne. He writes:
"The definite article in TO EINAI implies that the second expression is
closely connected with the first, for the function of the definite
article here is to point back to something previously mentioned (BDF
399, 1). Therefore, TO EINAI ISA QEWi should be understood thus: "the
equality with God of which we have just spoken equivalently by saying
EN MORFHi QEOU hUPARXWN."
Without getting into the theology of this Pauline passage, I find
Hawthorne's view unconvincing in view of the immediate context of 2:6
and the other uses of TO in the said immediate context.
"QEOS GAR ESTIN hO ENERGWN EN hUMIN KAI TO QELEIN KAI TO ENERGEIN hUPER
THS EUDOKIAS" (Phil. 2:13).
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