From: George Blaisdell (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Jun 03 1999 - 10:51:55 EDT
>From: "Eric Weiss"
>The Expositor's Greek Testament suggests this for Galatians 4:31-5:1
>(Galatians translator/commentator is Frederic Rendall, who seems to be
>somewhat iconoclastic in his interpretations/translations):
>"Wherefore, brethren, we are not children of a handmaid, but Christ set us
>free with the freedom of the freewoman."
>I wonder if another possible translation (along this same idea) would be:
>"Therefore, brethren, we are not children of the handmaid, but [we are]
>children of the freewoman in (locative?) (or "by" - instrumental) the
>freedom [with which] Christ freed us."
>What do you think? This is a totally different punctuation than is usually
>adopted in that it makes 5:1(a) a subordinate(?) clause of 4:31.
The question of to which clause TH ELEUQERIA attaches is one that seems to
have been missing from this discussion so far. Does it belong with the
freewoman clause, or the Christ one? So I think you are raising an
important approach. How locked up is the punctuation and sentence division
that is given in the elaborated [non-mss] texts [NA27, UBS4 etc]?
It does seem that TH ELEUQUERIA, being in the middle here, could have
meaning with both sentences, and thus have 'distribution' to both, and thus
indeed yield a bifurcation of syntax that could only be handled cognitively
by regarding it as a generic dative, which would require us in English to
repeat it with different prepositions in each sentence.
My 'too simple' attempt [with exclamation points to see it as the second in
a series of three rhetorically crescendoing assertions by Paul] to let it
stand alone sought to circumvent this repetition.
And ya gotta admit: This is more fun than the NY Times Sunday Crossword
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