From: Daniel Ria–o (email@example.com)
Date: Fri Jun 04 1999 - 12:31:41 EDT
>I'm at a place right now where it's very difficult to
>get at major reference works, but I wonder whether this is not the same
>thing which Schwyzer, in his large tome on Greek grammar, refers to as
>"Dativ von Ziel oder Richtung."
I have now Hoekstra's paper at hand, and I think a few passages are worth
mentioning verbatim to illustrate the theoretical difficulties of this
sub-class of uses of the Dative:
"The existence of the dative of Purpose in Greek is denied by some
philologists and grammarians e.g. by Sommer ... Humbert ...Kźhner-Gerth ...
Chantraine."--- [Note 1: Add to the list other good Greek grammarians I
have also annotated in my papers, like Lasso, Radermacher and all the
Grammars of NT, de la Villa, Crespo, etc]
"On the other hand, a number of commentators take the final
function of the dative for granted, but men with such excellent knowledge
of Greek as A.C. Pearson and Schwyzer-Debrunner apply the term to rather
different phenomena" (p. 15) "S.-D. treat the dative of purpose under the
heading *Der directiv-finale Dativ*" (p. 16) --- [Note 2: it is p. 139, ¤
4.f.I.1; "Ziel oder Richtung" is a tag S.-D. reserve for accusatives, I
think]. Hoekstra argues (p. 16), absolutely right in my opinion, that some
of the examples quoted here by S-D. are very doubtful, and even some others
that H. seems to accept as Dative of purpose seems to me also unconvincing.
"It is to be noted that, as far as Greek is concerned,
Brugman-Delbrueck in the second edition of their book [the Gruendiss...,
2ed. 2.2. pp. 559-60] have suppressed a whole series of previously quoted
examples ... These cases are listed by S.-D. under the heading *Freierer
echter Dativ bei Substantiven" (p. 17-8:) ---[Note 3: one of the examples
suppressed by B.-D. is the IG inscription from the 4th Century I quoted in
my previous post: I found it in Meisterhans Grammar of the attic
inscriptions (p. 209, 3 ed. besorgt von Schwyzer himself) quoted as an
example of "Dativus commodi" (!)].
Now the situation seems paradoxical: many philologists cut hairs in
the air about the possible existence of such semantic value for the dative
using very doubtful examples, when (as Hoeckstra points) there is a lot of
good examples, very hard to find in the good Grammars, that argues
convincingly in favour of its reality.
N.B.: in my previous post I forgot to mention Adrados, Francisco R.
"Nueva sintaxis del griego antiguo." Madrid, 1992 pp. 205-6, with a very
interesting discussion of the adnominal uses of the dative, and specially
what I (but not Adrados) would call the final/purpose uses.
Daniel Ria–o Rufilanchas
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