From: Donald L. Shaffer (email@example.com)
Date: Mon Jun 28 1999 - 21:34:06 EDT
Can someone explain why the neuter form of „oneš is used with the masculine
„Godš in Matt. 19:17?
And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? [there is] none good but
one, [that is], God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the
Another verse is John 8:17
... we have one father, God.
„Oneš is neuter, but both „fatherš and „Godš are masculine. Is this
breaking rules of Greek grammar? Am I missing something?
--- B-Greek home page: http://sunsite.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [firstname.lastname@example.org] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-329W@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to email@example.com
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:40:31 EDT