From: Donald L. Shaffer (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Jun 28 1999 - 21:34:06 EDT
Can someone explain why the neuter form of „oneš is used with the masculine
„Godš in Matt. 19:17?
And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? [there is] none good but
one, [that is], God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the
Another verse is John 8:17
... we have one father, God.
„Oneš is neuter, but both „fatherš and „Godš are masculine. Is this
breaking rules of Greek grammar? Am I missing something?
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