From: Carl W. Conrad (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Tue Jun 29 1999 - 06:52:52 EDT
At 6:29 AM -0400 6/29/99, Donald L. Shaffer wrote:
>Can someone explain why the neuter form of "one" is used with the masculine
>"God" in Matt. 19:17?
>And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? [there is] none good but
>one, [that is], God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the
The text here actually reads: hO DE EIPEN AUTWi: TI ME ERWTAiS PERI TOU
AGAQOU? hEIS ESTIN hO AGAQOS. ...
But probably you're drawing your version from the alternative (so-called
"Majority text"): TI ME LEGEIS AGAQON? OUDEIS AGAQOS EI MH hEIS hO QEOS.
Nevertheless, the form the numeral--hEIS in both forms of the verse--is
masculine singular nominative.
>Another verse is John 8:17
>... we have one father, God.
I think your verse reference is wrong; it should be 8:41; the text here
reads: hENA PATERA ECOMEN TON QEON.
The form of the numeral here is hENA; it is masculine singular accusative.
>„Oneš is neuter, but both "father" and "God" are masculine. Is this
>breaking rules of Greek grammar? Am I missing something?
Yes, but I'm not sure what it is. The only thing I can suppose is that you
are looking at some form of the Greek text that is different.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University
Summer: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
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