From: Joseph Brian Tucker (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Aug 11 1999 - 17:07:16 EDT
On 08/11/99, ""Joseph Brian Tucker" <firstname.lastname@example.org>" wrote:
>> A dative noun or pronoun can function semantically as the subject of a
>> dative participle. The dative nominal will be coreferential with
>> dative construction in the sentence. The participial construction is to
>> be translated as an adverbial clause, changing the participle into its
>> corresponding verb with the dative nominal as its subject (Matt. 8:23
>> EMBANTI AUTWi EIS TO PLOION HKOLOUQHSAN AUTWi). Therefore, there is a
>> possibility of considering the subject dative with an infinitive instead
>> of a dative participle - or am I way off base?
>Technically I think we'd want to say that the dative of EMBANTI AUTWi is
>governed by HKOLOUQHSAN, since AKOLOUQEW regularly construes with a
>dative;then the participle EMBANTI is dative circumstantial participle in
>agreement with the AUTWi--and, of course, that would accord with the
>pronoun no matter what case the pronoun is in. What is extraordinary in
>this clause, however (Mt 8:23), is that the AUTWi is repeated after
>HKOLOUQHSAN. A redundancy? Or is there a Semitism involved?
What about understanding the personal pronoun with a dative subject of
dative absolute participle construction in (Mt. 8:23)? EMBANTI AUTWi "when
he embarked..." Is the second AUTWi to be taken as the direct object of
HKOLOUQHSAN "when he embarked in the boat, they followed him."
Any thoughts on the substantial MS evidence (aleph; B; C; f1,13; 33)that
supports the omission of the definite article "a boat"? Is it an issue of
grammatical connection with Luke 8:22. I know it is not germane to our
dative issue, but since I have your attention, I thought I'd ask.
Brian Tucker, M.A.
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