From: David A Bielby (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Aug 29 1999 - 18:19:15 EDT
I'm meditating on Philippians 2:1-2 and a couple questions came up while
comparing NKJ & NIV translations with NA27. I'm not sure if these are
legitimate questions for B-Greek List...but believe they fit here.
Vs. 1 AT Robertson says that paraklesis shouldn't be translated comfort
Phi 2:1 - Comfort (paraklesis). Rather, "ground of appeal to you in
Christ." See 1Co 1:10;
NIV translates "agapes" here as "from His love". I thought it was a
genitive, not ablative and then found Robertson's comments read:
Objective genitive, "in love" (undefined as in 1Co 13).
Also the phrase "en Christo" in verse one is translated "from being
united with Christ" in the NIV.
My questions are:
Which meaning is most probable for paraklesis?
Is there any reason to insert a personal pronoun when translating
How should en Christo be translated in this context?
Thanks for your input.
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