From: Jefferson, Robert C. (X2JEFFER@southernco.com)
Date: Mon Aug 30 1999 - 13:48:13 EDT
How do you prove Jesus used the LXX.
Even in modern synagogues most Jews read the scripture in Hebrew.
Can you show that was not the case in the 1st century Palestine?
I do not think NT quotes are enough.
Also if LXX was authoritative then why is not every OT quote from the LXX?
From: Guy Lipkins [SMTP:email@example.com]
Sent: Monday, August 30, 1999 7:31 AM
To: Biblical Greek
Subject: The Septuaginta
Pondering a question for a possible upcoming article; Is the
"authoritative" or simply "accommodative" or both. I did a research
on Gen.12:1-3 "The Call of Abraham" employing the Septuaginta (as my
is virtually nil. My professor gave me an "A" but,in his comments,
stated; "though your exposition, application and exegegis was
questioned the validity/accuracy of your use of the LXX,to stress
position. I would be more comfortable had you used a "hebrew based
such as "Keil & Delitzsch" or "Theological Dictionary of the Old
Testament". My question is, If the LXX is the Bible that Jesus
it authoritative and binding, or did He merely use it to accommodate
"Hebraically Challenged" populous. Your comments and thoughts will
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