RE: The Septuaginta

From: Jefferson, Robert C. (
Date: Mon Aug 30 1999 - 13:48:13 EDT

How do you prove Jesus used the LXX.

Even in modern synagogues most Jews read the scripture in Hebrew.
Can you show that was not the case in the 1st century Palestine?

I do not think NT quotes are enough.

Also if LXX was authoritative then why is not every OT quote from the LXX?


        -----Original Message-----
        From: Guy Lipkins []
        Sent: Monday, August 30, 1999 7:31 AM
        To: Biblical Greek
        Subject: The Septuaginta

        Pondering a question for a possible upcoming article; Is the
        "authoritative" or simply "accommodative" or both. I did a research
        on Gen.12:1-3 "The Call of Abraham" employing the Septuaginta (as my
        is virtually nil. My professor gave me an "A" but,in his comments,
        stated; "though your exposition, application and exegegis was
excellent, I
        questioned the validity/accuracy of your use of the LXX,to stress
        position. I would be more comfortable had you used a "hebrew based
        such as "Keil & Delitzsch" or "Theological Dictionary of the Old
        Testament". My question is, If the LXX is the Bible that Jesus
used, was
        it authoritative and binding, or did He merely use it to accommodate
        "Hebraically Challenged" populous. Your comments and thoughts will
        greatly appreciated.

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