From: Tony Costa (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Sep 17 1999 - 13:33:19 EDT
This is not really a question on grammar. In Gal 6:16, Paul speaks of the
"Israel of God". There has been some debate over this term. Is it a
reference to the Jewish believers in the church in Galatia, or is it a
reference to all Chrstians in general whether Jew or Gentile? As far as Paul
is concerned, he definitely believes the Jews remain in God's salvation
plan. (Rom 9-11). Any thoughts on this?
Tony Costa, B.A.
Univ. of Toronto
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