From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Fri Sep 17 1999 - 12:54:34 EDT
At 10:33 AM -0700 9/17/99, Tony Costa wrote:
>This is not really a question on grammar. In Gal 6:16, Paul speaks of the
>"Israel of God". There has been some debate over this term. Is it a
>reference to the Jewish believers in the church in Galatia, or is it a
>reference to all Chrstians in general whether Jew or Gentile? As far as Paul
>is concerned, he definitely believes the Jews remain in God's salvation
>plan. (Rom 9-11). Any thoughts on this?
This isn't even a question about the Greek text, but a question of interpretation that doesn't depend upon the Greek text. The proper place to put it would be to the Corpus Paulinum list; if you're not on that, I suggest that you confer with Jeffrey Gibson who administers it; you're likely to get appropriate answers there from people who specialize in Paul.
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