Re: Is TEMPUS A Part of Greek Grammar?

From: Jim West (
Date: Sat Sep 25 1999 - 16:17:42 EDT

At 03:13 PM 9/25/99 -0400, you wrote:

>It seems to me that any explanation of "why" or "how" has to involve
>theory. Should we not ask "why" or "how"?

We should if we can find an answer that is itself not airy speculation.
Tell me, please, what signs point in the direction of finding an answer to
theories of language that lie outside the realm of practice?

If the pursuit of a theory results in merely other theories than what is the
usefulness? Do we not then merely set up a chain of ad infinitum theories
which resolve into pure nothingness?

Thus, theories of language mey in themselves be useful- but beyond
themselves they are mere "theory"- a seeing what may or may not be there-
and in that sense simple fantasy.

Finally, here we are asked to abstain from theolgical discussions insofar as
we can, becuase such discussions are ultimately based on personal theories
or statements of faith. In short, because such theories have nothing to do
with the actual use of Greek by writers of the New Testament. Likewise
linguistic theories are at best statements of faith BECAUSE they have no
basis in actual practice. Thus, what's good for the goose of theological
speculation should also be good for the gander of linguistic speculation.


Jim West, ThD
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