From: Edgar Foster (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Sep 23 1999 - 11:56:22 EDT
After reading countless discussions on B-Greek about
aspect and aktionsart, I am still engaged in
researching this subject. I wonder, should we dispense
with the term "tense" (TEMPUS) in Greek grammar? Is
time grammaticalized in Greek?
Richard A. Young writes:
"there is still merit in the traditional view that
temporal distinctions are grammaticalized in the
indicative mood, even though it results in a greater
number of anomalies" (Young 107).
Moises Silva has also made similar observations in his
book on exegesis and Galatians. I wonder if Young and
Silva have hit on something here. When I read verses
like John 3:16, it seems to be an example of time
grammaticalized in location. Then again, I could be
wrong. If you think this topic has been discussed AD
NAUSEAM, you can reply offlist.
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