Re: Col 1:20

From: Brian Swedburg (
Date: Thu Sep 23 1999 - 18:12:55 EDT

<x-html><!x-stuff-for-pete base="" src="" id="0"><!doctype html public "-//w3c//dtd html 4.0 transitional//en">
<p><i>Tom Logan wrote:</i>
<blockquote TYPE=CITE><i>Hello Brian</i><i></i>
<p><i>I view EIRENOPOIESAS (having made peace) as also having a past temporal
reference. I</i>
<br><i>am no greek scholar just a humble inquirer willing to bow to the
superior greek</i>
<br><i>knowledge that is on this board. but the "having made peace" certainly
appears to me</i>
<br><i>to indicate past occurence</i>
&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp; Please accept the apology of a fellow "little Greek"
if I came across critically.&nbsp; My question was meant to lead towards
my observation that
<p>&nbsp;-&nbsp;&nbsp; bearing in mind that we are taught that the infinitive
and participle communicate&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp;
aspect&nbsp;&nbsp; and not time...
<p>-&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp; if we should agree that the aor infinitive is modified
by the aor part, which in turn is modified by the prepositional phrase
<p>-&nbsp;&nbsp;&nbsp; I agree a past occurance is indicated, which is
identified as Jesus death on the cross.
<p>Sorry, Thanks.
<br>Little Greek Brian</html>


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