From: Steve Puluka (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Oct 04 1999 - 06:20:47 EDT
>Subject: Re: Matt 19:9
>Date: Sun, 3 Oct 1999 16:51:41 -0700
>The question is, did the early church fathers understand the
>MH EPI PORNEIA of Mt 19:9 as denoting preterition (as excluding
>from consideration the case of PORNEIA) or as denoting the
>negation, that is, if a man divorced his wife because of PORNEIA,
>and remarried, then he did not commit adultery in so doing?
>I don't see anything in the translations cited below that suggests
>anything other than the preterition view.
I'm not clear on this distinction, but perhaps we are on the same page. I
read the Patristic evidence as permiting the divorce only for fornication,
but not any further marriages for either party.
Beyond that I really can't speak to the grammer distinction on negation or
exclusion. Could you elaborate on this please?
Adult Education Instructor
Byzantine Catholic Archeparcy of Pittsburgh
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