From: Jim West (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Oct 13 1999 - 08:08:34 EDT
At 01:37 AM 10/13/99 -0400, you wrote:
>Can we distinguish between the spiritual death and the physical death of
Christ by evaluating the text in the original language?
>In Col. 1:22 the word "thanatos" is in the singular. Does this Greek noun
refer to His Spiritual death?
No, it is simply the word for death. (answers unpleasantly brief because
more would be theological... which is of course Verboten).
>In Col. 2:12 the word "nekros" is used in the plural. True or False: The
only time that nekros is used for spiritual death is when it is found in the
No. See your handy dandy concordance.
>In John 19:30 when Jesus said, "Tetelestai" Jesus was obviously not dead.
Does the original language help us understand what he meant? Was Jesus
speaking of his Spiritual death at this point?
No- the verb simply means "finished", "completed". It was the word
frequently written across the conviction notice of Roman prisoners when
their term of imprisonment was completed.
Jim West, ThD
web page- http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
'Mythology is what never was but always is.' Stephen of Byzantium
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