From: Carl W. Conrad (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Oct 13 1999 - 09:21:50 EDT
At 8:08 AM -0400 10/13/99, Jim West wrote:
>At 01:37 AM 10/13/99 -0400, you wrote:
>>In John 19:30 when Jesus said, "Tetelestai" Jesus was obviously not dead.
>Does the original language help us understand what he meant? Was Jesus
>speaking of his Spiritual death at this point?
>No- the verb simply means "finished", "completed". It was the word
>frequently written across the conviction notice of Roman prisoners when
>their term of imprisonment was completed.
And you're welcome to believe that's what John understood Jesus to mean, if
you want to. On the other hand,although the verb in John 17:4 is TELEIOW
rather than TELEW, one might be tempted to think there's a relationship
between the TETELESTAI of John 19:28 and 30 and the TELEIWSAS of 17:4:
EGW SE EDOXASA EPI THS GHS, TO ERGON TELEIWSAS hO DEDWKAS MOI hINA POIHSW.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
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