From: Michael Steinman (MikeSteinman@Juno.com)
Date: Fri Oct 15 1999 - 11:14:22 EDT
I am currently in a Biblical Greek Class and we were translating
Matthew 2:13. The last portion reads: MELLEI GAR hHRWDHS ZHTEIV TO
PAIDION TOU APOLESAI AUTO.
What is the significance of the definite article TOU and why does it appear
in the genitive form? This even has the professor a bit stumped at the
moment. Any comments would be appreciated.
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