From: Jim West (email@example.com)
Date: Fri Oct 15 1999 - 12:20:31 EDT
At 11:14 AM 10/15/99 +0000, you wrote:
>I am currently in a Biblical Greek Class and we were translating
>Matthew 2:13. The last portion reads: MELLEI GAR hHRWDHS ZHTEIV TO
>PAIDION TOU APOLESAI AUTO.
>What is the significance of the definite article TOU and why does it appear
>in the genitive form? This even has the professor a bit stumped at the
>moment. Any comments would be appreciated.
This is simply an articular infinitive. The article merely lends the
infinitive its case and thus it has no other significance than to make the
case and substantivization clear. Blass-Debrunner discuss the genitive of
the articular infinitive in great detail (sec 400). In sum, the use of the
articular infinitive in the genitive case denotes purpose. But, again, see
B-D. for a more thorough explanation.
Jim West, ThD
web page- http://web.infoave.net/~jwest
'Mythology is what never was but always is.' Stephen of Byzantium
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