From: Polychroni (upb_moniodis@ONLINE.EMICH.EDU)
Date: Mon Oct 18 1999 - 13:02:47 EDT
A while ago I posted on the B-Hebrew list regarding the text of Ps.
118:26a (MT). I was interested in whether the Hebrew supported by
reading of the Greek (not knowing any Hebrew). The B-Hebrew list was
divided on the question (though I found substantial support for my
hypothesis). The Hebrew arguments being exhausted, the matter started
to turn to the Greek. Rather than continue on that question there, I
am posting it here.
The LXX text of the psalm, repeated in the NT is:
EULOHMENOS hO ERCOMENOS EN ONOMATI KURIOU
Which I read as saying:
Blessed [be] the Coming One in the name of the Lord.
Not meaning that the Coming One comes in the name of the Lord, but that
the Coming One is blessed [by us] in the name of the Lord.
In support of this I also offer the Greek text of ~Textus Receptus~ for
Mk 11:10a which has:
EULOGHMENH hH ERKOMENH BASIEIA EN ONOMATI KURIOU
TOU PATROS HMWN DAUID
Which literally translates to:
"Blessed [be] the coming kingship in the name of the Lord of our
Or, in predicated position:
"The coming kingship of our father David is blessed in the name of the
Or, in attributive position:
"Blessed in the name of the Lord is the coming kingship of our father
Where it is unreasonable to ascribe that the coming kingship comes in
the name of the Lord.
Your response is welcomed.
Polychroni N. Moniodis
PS. I have consulted the commentaries of St. John Chrysostom (both on
Matthew & the Psalms) and St. Theophylactos (c. 1000 AD) and did not
find support for the traditional interpretation that "in the name of
the Lord" modifies the "Coming One."
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