Date: Wed Oct 20 1999 - 17:00:18 EDT
In a message dated 10/20/99 3:36:13 PM, email@example.com writes:
<< The force of the present tense in 1 Jn 3:9 is the same as it is
throughout the whole book and particularly 3:6-10.
In 3:6, PAS hO hAMARTANWN OUC hEWRAKEN AUTON OUDE
In 3:8, hO POIWN THN hAMARTIAN EK TOU DIABOLOU ESTIN.
In v. 10 the children of God and the children of the Devil are
manifest by MH hAMARTANWN and hAMARTANWN respectively.
If the present tenses here can be taken in any other way than
as communicateing habitual/characteristic behavior, then I
would like to see it. >>
While there is a lot of discussion on the present tense, I wonder if that
should really be the issue. I actually prefer to see the present tenses as
gnomic here. However, I suggest that THN hAMARTIAN actually refers to the
specific sins that the false teachers were guilty of: denying that Jesus
Christ has come in the flesh and hating the brethren. John could be saying
that the one born of God does not commit these sins period.
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