From: jim west (jwest@Highland.Net)
Date: Tue Oct 26 1999 - 11:02:55 EDT
In the Hebrew NT I happen to have the greek term kaqhghths is translated
'moreh' here. It sets me to pondering, is it possible that the author is
here suggesting that the leader of the Qumran community, like the "rabbis"
and "fathers" should not be viewed as authoritative (in such a way that
their authority eclipses Jesus's). I.e., were there folk in the early
Church who did, in fact, follow rabbis, fathers, and "righteous teachers"
and thus the author of the Gospel writes to curb the effect of their authority?
Thanks and sorry for cross posting.
Jim West, ThD
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