Re: Titus 3:1

From: Carl W. Conrad (
Date: Tue Nov 02 1999 - 20:07:54 EST

At 10:07 AM -0500 11/2/99, Mark Gibbs wrote:
> Greetings,
> I may be displaying my ignorance here so please bear with me...
> Titus 3:1a reads:
> I understand that the infinitive is serving as the direct object
>of the imperative verb, but what is the relationship between the
>infinitive and the 2 plural datives, if any? With the absence of KAI
>between the nouns (and I realize that the KAI appears in the majority
>text, but we need not go down that path) am I totally out of line to see
>the ARCAIS as somehow acting as a modifier of EKOUSIAIS (i.e., "ruling
>authorities). It just seems to me that there is more going on here than
>meets the eye.

I don't think there's much more than meets the eye here.

I'd understand it exactly as you put it, that the two datives mean "ruling
authorities." Although this is the only place in the NT where the two
appear in direct conjunction, there are several instances where the two are
used together in such a way that they seem to be synonymous: Lk 12:11,
20:20, 1 Cor 15:24, Eph 1;21, 3:10, 6:12, Col 1:16, 2:10, 2:15 (all this
from a quick check in AcCordance).

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649

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