Titus 3:1

From: Mark Gibbs (GibbsM@smcsc.edu)
Date: Tue Nov 02 1999 - 10:07:27 EST


        I may be displaying my ignorance here so please bear with me...

        Titus 3:1a reads:


        I understand that the infinitive is serving as the direct object
of the imperative verb, but what is the relationship between the
infinitive and the 2 plural datives, if any? With the absence of KAI
between the nouns (and I realize that the KAI appears in the majority
text, but we need not go down that path) am I totally out of line to see
the ARCAIS as somehow acting as a modifier of EKOUSIAIS (i.e., "ruling
authorities). It just seems to me that there is more going on here than
meets the eye.

        Thanks for your insight.

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