From: David A Bielby (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Nov 07 1999 - 01:49:22 EST
Thanks! So in the context of John 10:28, which meaning would you prefer
and why would you prefer that meaning?
On Fri, 05 Nov 1999 17:29:42 -0500 Jim West <jwest@Highland.Net> writes:
> At 08:43 AM 11/5/99 -0600, you wrote:
> >OU MH APOLWNTAI from John 10:28 question:
> >What is the meaning of APOLWNTAI in this sentence? Do you have any
> >etymological information or syntax comments on OU MH APOLWNTAI
> which may
> >impact this verse? Any help here would be appreciated.
> Its an old verb and is used by Homer for "to destroy or kill" and it
> is also
> used in the NT and some papyri to mean "to lose or suffer from
> loss", to
> perish", "to be lost". Robertson calls it an emphatic double
> negative (and
> he is right). The verb is a second aorist subjunctive.
> Is this what you wanted?
> >David Bielby
> >Vineyard Christian Fellowship
> >Bloomington/Normal, Illinois USA
> >email@example.com www.bloomington.vineyard.org
> >Phone: 309-827-8292
> >B-Greek home page: http://sunsite.unc.edu/bgreek
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> Jim West, ThD
Vineyard Christian Fellowship
Bloomington/Normal, Illinois USA
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