From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Fri Nov 26 1999 - 19:12:26 EST
I am forwarding to the list this question from a new subscriber to B-Greek,
>Date: Fri, 26 Nov 1999 15:16:41 EST
>Does Matthew 1:23b use of the definite article denote specific identiy
>(articular) to the noun it preceeds or is there an exception in the Greek
>grammar of this text?
>Is there something we should consider in Mt. 1:23b besides the article to
>decide the "identity/articular" verses "quality/anarthrous" use issue. I am
>not looking for theology here, just Greek scholarship.
>Or to put it another way, does the Greek article ALWAYS denote "specific
>identity" when used with a construction preceeding a noun? Is "specific
>identity" the only possible sense?
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics/Washington University
One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018
Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649
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