From: Carlton Winbery (email@example.com)
Date: Fri Nov 26 1999 - 20:00:40 EST
Ken Hall wrote;
>>Date: Fri, 26 Nov 1999 15:16:41 EST
>>Does Matthew 1:23b use of the definite article denote specific identiy
>>(articular) to the noun it preceeds or is there an exception in the Greek
>>grammar of this text?
>>Is there something we should consider in Mt. 1:23b besides the article to
>>decide the "identity/articular" verses "quality/anarthrous" use issue. I am
>>not looking for theology here, just Greek scholarship.
>>Or to put it another way, does the Greek article ALWAYS denote "specific
>>identity" when used with a construction preceeding a noun? Is "specific
>>identity" the only possible sense?
Technically speaking proper names really need no article since they are
already definite, but in Greek the article is often used with proper names.
Some think that the use of the article with proper names "calls special
attention" to the name. The difference can seldom be indicated in an
English translation without making more of the phenomena than it deserves.
Many question whether there is anything in this use beyond the habits of
Greek speakers. In relation to QEOS it could designate it as a proper name,
but we cannot say when the article is absent that it is not the name of God
(see John 1:12), just that "special attention" is not in the mind of the
writer in that case. This is also off the top of my head. I will check it
further when I return to my better research tools in my office.
Dr. Carlton L. Winbery
Foggleman Professor of Religion
Ph. 1 318 448 6103 hm
Ph. 1 318 487 7241 off
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